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Lithium

| Filed under Drug Therapy

A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency center in a drunken stupor. He is accompanied by his wife, who states that he hasn’t been himself at all for the past few months. According to his wife, he was evaluated for depression by his personal physician about 3 months ago and started on an SSRI. He responded quite well to this therapy over the subsequent 2 months. He started feeling so good and so energetic that he stopped taking his medication. He found that he needed less and less sleep, to the point where he is now only sleeping 2-3 hours a day. He has been showering his wife with very expensive gifts and has hit the maximum limit on all of their credit cards. He has been extremely romantic and more interested in sexual relations than at any time before. He has also started drinking heavily and has passed out drunk more than once. His work has suffered, and his boss said that he is in danger of being fired if things don’t straighten out. Other than being drunk, his physical examination and blood tests are normal. He is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder and started on lithium.

What is the mechanism of action of lithium?

What are the common side effects of lithium?

What is the mechanism of lithium-induced polyuria?

Answers to case: Lithium

Summary: A 29-year-old man is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is started on lithium.

Mechanism of action of lithium: Not entirely known but may be related to inhibition of membrane phospholipid turnover with a reduction in key second messengers, important in the overactivity of catecholamines thought to be related to mood swings characteristic of bipolar disorder.

Common side effects of lithium: Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremor, edema, weight gain, polydipsia, and polyuria.

Mechanism of lithium-induced polyuria: Renal collecting tubule becomes resistant to antidiuretic hormone.

Clinical correlation

Lithium (Li+) is an effective treatment for bipolar disorder. It is administered orally as lithium carbonate and eliminated almost entirely through the kidney. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic window. Even at therapeutic levels (0.5-1.4 mM/L), there are frequent side effects. These include GI side effects, tremor, edema, polydipsia, and polyuria, as well as diabetes insipidus and weight gain. It can cause a benign thyroid enlargement and even overt hypothyroidism (5%). It has been associated with congenital malformations when used during pregnancy. Frequent monitoring of blood levels is critical. There are potentially serious adverse effects at somewhat higher levels (above 2 mM/L). These include confusion, dizziness, ataxia, and vomiting at even higher blood levels (above 2.5 mM/L) progress to seizures, circulatory collapse, and coma. Lithium also has significant drug interactions that may increase its blood levels. Increased sodium clearance or depletion, such as caused by thiazide diuretics, some nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs; but not aspirin or acetaminophen), or severe vomiting and diarrhea, can lead to the increased renal reabsorption of lithium, thus causing toxicity.

Approach to pharmacology of lithium

Objectives

1. Describe the mechanism of action of lithium.

2. List other pharmacologic agents used to treat bipolar disease.

Definitions

Bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder: Bipolar disorder is characterized by paranoid thoughts, hyperactivity, and grandiosity, alternating in a cyclic fashion with symptoms of depression that often requires concomitant use of antidepressant agents.

Lithium: Class

In addition to Li+, the antiepileptic drugs valproic acid and carbamazepine, and the antipsychotic agent quetiapine are also first-line drugs that are effective for the treatment of the manic component of bipolar disease, often in patients unresponsive to lithium. These agents are referred to as mood stabilizers. Their adverse effect profiles when used to treat manic-depression are generally milder than for lithium.

Structure

Lithium is a small, monovalent cation that is similar in its properties to sodium and that enters cells through Na+ channels.

Mechanism of Action

Lithium has a number of actions that may have some relationship to its therapeutic activity, including its effects on the synthesis and release of the neuro-transmitters norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine. Lithium’s most common and best-studied effect is on the membrane recycling of phospho-inositides. It inhibits the key inositol phosphatase enzyme, inositol monophos-phatase, with depletion of free inositol that is necessary for the activity of the second messengers inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG), which mediate the cellular actions of G-protein-coupled muscarinic choli-noreceptors, α-adrenoceptors, and serotonin 5-HT2 receptors.

Administration

Lithium, as lithium carbonate, carbamazepine, and valproic acid are administered orally.

Pharmacokinetics

Lithium has a relatively slow onset of therapeutic action (valproic acid’s effects can be achieved in a few days).

More than 90 percent of Li+ is excreted into the urine, but only 20 percent is cleared. Lithium is actively reabsorbed in the proximal tubule in competition with and at the same sites as Na+. Sodium depletion as a result of a low-Na+ diet, as well as diarrhea, concomitant use of diuretics, or even sweating, can lead to increased Li+ retention and toxicity.

Because the renal clearance of lithium increases during pregnancy and then decreases following delivery, careful monitoring of lithium concentrations is necessary to avoid toxicity.

Questions

[1] The therapeutic action of Li+ is thought to be caused by direct inhibition of which of the following?

A. Inositol monophosphatase

B. Inositol trisphosphate (IP3)

C. Diacylglycerol (DAG)

D. Muscarinic cholinoreceptors

[2] The renal clearance of Li+ may increase with which of the following?

A. Diarrhea

B. Diuretics

C. NSAIDs

D. Pregnancy

[3] Which of the following is the most likely adverse effect of Li+ at therapeutic doses?

A. GI dysfunction

B. Hyperthyroidism

C. Oliguria

D. Thrombocytopenia

Answers

[1] A. The therapeutic action of Li+ is thought to be caused by direct inhibition of inositol monophosphatase. Its effects on IP3, DAG, and muscarinic cholinoceptor activities are an indirect consequence of this inhibition.

[2] D. The renal clearance of Li+ may increase with pregnancy, which may lead to a reduction in its therapeutic effect. Diarrhea, certain NSAIDs, and diuretics that result in hyponatremia decrease the renal clearance of Li+, which may result in more severe adverse effects.

[3] A. GI dysfunction, polydipsia (and polyuria), and hypothyroidism are adverse effects of Li+ that may occur at therapeutic doses.

Pharmacology pearls

Measurement of serum lithium concentrations are used routinely to carefully monitor treatment and to evaluate the likelihood of toxicity.

Lithium is associated with thyroid enlargement; hypothyroidism; diabetes insipidus; diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting; and weight gain. It has been associated with congenital malformations when used in pregnancy.

Lithium has a relatively slow onset of therapeutic action, and therefore antipsychotic drugs, such as olanzepine, or benzodiazepines are used acutely to calm seriously agitated patients with bipolar affective disorder.

Antidepressant agents may precipitate mania and induce more rapid cycling in some patients.

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Antiarrhythmic drugs

| Filed under Drug Therapy

A 62-year-old man is being managed in the intensive care unit following a large anterior wall MI. He has been appropriately managed with oxygen, aspirin, nitrates, and P-adrenergic receptor blockers but has developed recurrent episodes of ventricular tachycardia. During these episodes he remains conscious but feels dizzy, and he becomes diaphoretic and hypotensive. He is given an IV bolus of lidocaine and started on an IV lidocaine infusion.

To what class of antiarrhythmic does lidocaine belong?

What is lidocaine’s mechanism of action?

Answers to case: Antiarrhythmic drugs

Summary: A 62-year-old man develops symptomatic ventricular tachycardia after an MI. He is begun on IV lidocaine.

Class of antiarrhythmic to which lidocaine belongs: Ib.

Mechanism of action: Specific Na+ channel blocker, reduces the rate of phase 0 depolarization, primarily in damaged tissue.

Clinical correlation

Lidocaine is a common treatment for ventricular tachycardia in a patient who is symptomatic and remains conscious. It works by blocking Na+ channels and is highly selective for damaged tissue. This makes it useful for the treatment of ventricular ectopy associated with an MI. It is administered as an IV bolus followed by a continuous drip infusion. It is metabolized in the liver and undergoes a large first-pass effect. It has many neurological side effects, including agitation, confusion, and tremors, and can precipitate seizures.

Approach to pharmacology of the antiarrhythmics

Objectives

1. Know the classes of antiarrhythmic agents and their mechanisms of action.

2. Know the indications for the use of antiarrhythmic agents.

3. Know the adverse effects and toxicities of the antiarrhythmic agents.

Definitions

Paroxysmal atrial tachycardias (PAT): Arrhythmia caused by reentry through the AV node.

Heart block: Failure of normal conduction from atria to ventricles.

WPW: Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

Antiarrhythmic drugs: Class

Arrhythmias arise as a result of improper impulse generation or improper impulse conduction. The abnormal action potentials cause disturbances in the rate of contraction or in the coordination of myocardial contraction. The molecular targets of antiarrhythmics are ion channels in the myocardium or conduction pathways; these may be direct or indirect effects.

There are four ion channels of pharmacologic importance in the heart:

Voltage-activated Na+ channel — SCN5A

Voltage-activated Ca2+ channel — L-type

Voltage-activated K+ channel — IKr

Voltage-activated K+ channel — IKs

Most antiarrhythmic drugs either bind directly to sites within the pore of a channel or indirectly alter channel activity. There are approximately 20 antiar-rhythmics approved for use today. They are classified according to which of the ion channels they affect and their mechanism of action (Table Selected antiarrhythmic agents). The major arrhythmias of clinical concern are ventricular arrhythmias, atrial arrhythmias, bradycardias, and heart blocks. There is also the pharmacologic need to convert an abnormal rhythm to normal sinus rhythm (cardioconver-sion). The class of antiarrhythmics used for any particular arrhythmia depends on the clinical circumstances. The treatment of acute, life-threatening disease, in contrast with the long-term management of chronic disease, requires a different selection of antiarrhythmics.

Table: Selected antiarrhythmic agents

Class Prototype drug Na+ K+ Ca2+ Effect
Ia Quinidine X X Increases refractory period, slows conduction
Ib Lidocaine X Shortens duration of refractory period
Ic Flecainide X X Slows conduction
II Propranolol X* Blocks β1-adrenergic receptors
III Amiodarone X X Increases refractory period
IV Verapamil X Increases refractory period AV node
Other
Adenosine X X* Decreases AV node conduction
Moricizine X**
Atropine Decreases vagal tone
Digoxin Increases vagal tone
Sotalol X*** Also nonselective beta blocker

* Indirect effect mediated by decreasing cAMP.

** Moricizine blocks Na+ channels and is usually considered a class 1 antiarrhythmic, but it has properties of Ia, Ib, and Ic drugs.

*** Solotol has α- and β-adrenergic antagonist properties and also inhibits K+ channels.

Class I Antiarrhythmics

Class I antiarrhythmics bind to Na+ channels and prevent their activation. This increases their effective refractory period and decreases conduction velocity. Class I antiarrhythmics have a greater effect on damaged tissue compared to normal tissue. This may be because of several factors:

Depolarization. Damaged tissues tend to be depolarized because of K+ leakage — many class I antiarrhythmics preferentially bind to depolarized tissues.

pH. Ischemic tissues are more acidic, and many class I antiarrhythmics preferentially bind to membranes at low pH.

Inactivation frequency. During arrhythmias, Na+ channels undergo more rapid cycles of activation/inactivation. At any given time there will be an increase in the number of inactive channels compared to normal tissues in a normal rhythm. Class I antiarrhythmics generally bind preferentially to Na+ channels in the inactive state.

The subclasses a, b, and c of class I antiarrhythmics are distinguished based on their ability to inhibit K+ channels.

Class Ia. Procainamide is a prototype class la antiarrhythmic that suppresses the activity of Na+ and also suppresses K+-channel activity. Administered IV, it is used for the acute suppression of supraventricu-lar and ventricular arrhythmias and for suppressing episodes of atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation. It may be administered orally for the long-term suppression of both supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmia, but toxicity limits this application. Procainamide can suppress sinoatrial (SA) and AV nodal activity, especially in patients with nodal disease, and cause heart block. Prolonged use of procainamide is associated with increased risk of ventricular tachycardias. Procainamide has some ganglionic blocking activity and can cause hypotension and decreased myocardial contractility. A limiting adverse effect of procainamide is the development of lupus-like syndrome characterized by skin rash, arthritis, and serositis. All patients on procainamide will develop antinuclear antibodies within 2 years. Procainamide is metabolized to IV-acetyl procainamide (NAPA), which has K+-channel-blocking effects. NAPA is excreted by the kidney, and plasma levels of procainamide and NAPA should both be monitored especially in patients with renal disease.

Class Ib. Lidocaine is very specific for the Na+ channel and it blocks both activated and inactivated states of the channel. It must be administered parenterally. Lidocaine has been used extensively to suppress ventricular arrhythmias associated with acute MI or cardiac damage (surgery). It has been used prophylactically to prevent arrhythmias in patients with MI, but there is controversy as to the overall benefit in decreasing mortality. Lidocaine is metabolized in the liver and has relatively short half-life (60 minutes). This limits its adverse effects which generally are mild and rapidly reversible. Overdose can produce sedation, hallucinations, and convulsions.

Class Ic. Flecainide inhibits both Na+ and K+ channels but shows no preference for inactivated Na+ channels. It delays conduction and increases refractoriness. It is effective for the control of atrial arrhythmias and it is very effective in suppressing supraventricular arrhythmias. A recent large clinical trial with patients with ischemic heart disease demonstrated that flecainide is associated with increased mortality. Currently its use is restricted to patients with atrial arrhythmias without underlying ischemic heart disease.

Class II Agents

Endogenous catecholamines increase myocardial excitability and can trigger ventricular arrhythmias. β-Adrenergic receptor blockade indirectly suppresses L-type Ca2+-channel activity. This slows phase 3 repolarization and lengthens the refractory period. Reduction in sympathetic tone depresses automaticity, decreases AV conduction, and decreases heart rate and contractility. Beta blockers are useful for the long-term suppression of ventricular arrhythmias particularly in patients at risk for sudden cardiac arrest. Beta blockers are most effective in patients with increased adrenergic activity:

• Surgical or anesthetic stress.

• Anginal pain and MI.

• Congestive heart failure and ischemic heart disease.

• Hyperthyroidism.

• Beta blockers have been shown to reduce mortality and second cardiovascular events by 25-40% in patients with post-MI.

There are a large number of beta blockers approved for use as antiarrhythmics. Two of particular interest are

1. d,l-sotalol, which is particularly effective as an antiarrhythmic agent because it combines inhibition of K+ channels with beta-blocker activity

2. Metoprolol, a specific β1 antagonist, which reduces the risk of pulmonary complications

d,l-sotalol is a racemic mixture; 1-sotalol is an effective, nonselective β-adrenergic antagonist; and d-sotalol is a class III antiarrhythmic that inhibits K+ channels. It is an oral agent with a long half-life (20 hours) that can maintain therapeutic blood levels with once a day dosing. d,l-sotalol is useful for the long-term suppression of ventricular arrhythmias, especially in patients at risk of sudden death. It is also used to suppress atrial flutter and fibrillation and paroxysmal atrial tachycardia. It is a valuable adjunct in the use of implantable cardiac defibrillators, decreasing the number of events that require defibrillation. At low doses, the P-adrenergic-blocking activity, and associated adverse effects, predominates. At higher doses, the K+-channel inhibitory effects predominate with the risk of developing ventricular tachycardia.

Class III Antiarrhythmics

Drugs in this class include bretylium, dofetilide, and amiodarone. These agents act predominantly to inhibit cardiac K+ channels (IKr). This lengthens the time to repolarize and prolongs the refractory period. Amiodarone is also a potent inhibitor of Na+ channels and has α- and β-adrenergic antagonist activity.

Amiodarone has an unusual structure related to thyroxine. It can be administered IV or orally, but its actions differ depending on route of administration. IV-administered amiodarone has acute effects to inhibit K+-channel activity, slowing repolarization, and increasing the refractory period of all myocardial cell types. Administered orally in a more chronic setting, it leads to long-term alterations in membrane properties with a reduction in both Na+-and K+-channel activity and decrease in adrenergic receptor activity. Amiodarone is used extensively for ventricular and atrial arrhythmias and has little myocardial depressant activity, allowing it to be used in patients with diminished cardiac function. Administered IV, amiodarone is effective in treating ventricular tachycardia and to prevent recurrent ventricular tachycardia, and to suppress atrial fibrillation. Oral amiodarone is useful for arrhythmias that have not responded to other drugs (such as adenosine) and for long-term suppression of arrhythmias in patients at risk of sudden cardiac death.

Amiodarone has little myocardial toxicity, does not impair contractility, and rarely induces arrhythmias. Most of the adverse effects of amiodarone result from its long half-life (13-103 days) and poor solubility. Amiodarone deposits in the lung and can cause irreversible pulmonary damage. Similarly, amiodarone can be deposited in the cornea causing visual disturbances or in the skin where it can cause a bluish tinge.

Class IV Antiarrhythmics

The class IV antiarrhythmics act by directly blocking the activity of L-type Ca2+ channels. Verapamil and diltiazem are the major members of this class, and they have a similar pharmacology. Verapamil blocks both active and inactive Ca2+ channels and has effects that are equipotent in cardiac and peripheral tissues. The dihydropyridines such as nifedipine have little effect on Ca2+ channels in the myocardium, but are effective in blocking Ca2+ channels in the vasculature. Verapamil has marked effects on both SA and AV nodes because these tissues are highly dependent on Ca2+ currents. AV node conduction and refractory period are prolonged and the SA node is slowed. Verapamil and diltiazem are useful for reentrant supraventricu-lar tachycardias and can also be used to reduce the ventricular rate in atrial flutter or fibrillation. The major adverse effect of verapamil is related to its inhibition of myocardial contractility. It can cause heart block at high doses.

Other Antiarrhythmics

Adenosine is a very short-acting drug (approximately 10 seconds) used specifically to block PAT. Adenosine binds to purinergic A1 receptors.

Activation of these receptors leads to increased potassium conductance and decreased in calcium influx. This results in hyperpolarization and a decrease in Ca2+-dependent action potentials. The effect in the AV node is marked with a decrease in conduction and an increase in nodal refractory period. Effects on the SA node are smaller. Adenosine is nearly 100 percent effective in converting PAT to sinus rhythm. Adenosine must be given IV, and because of its short half-life, it has few adverse effects. Flushing and chest pain are frequent but typically resolve quickly.

Digoxin blocks Na+-K+-ATPase and indirectly increases intracellular Ca2+. In the myocardium this causes an increase in contractility; in nerve tissue the predominant effect is to increase neurotransmitter release; and the parasympathetic system (vagus) is affected more than the sympathetic system. The increased vagal tone results in increased stimulation of mus-carinic acetylcholine receptors that slow conduction in the AV node. Digoxin is very effective controlling the ventricular response rate in patients with atrial fibrillation or flutter. Digoxin can be administered IV to acutely treat atrial arrhythmias or orally for long-term suppression of abnormal atrial rhythms. Digitalis is less effective than adenosine in PAT and should not be used in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist that can be used in some brady-cardias and heart blocks. It can be administered to reverse heart block caused by increased vagal tone such as an MI or digitalis toxicity. Atropine is administered IV, and it exerts its effect within minutes.

Questions

[1] Which of the following is the most effective agent for converting paroxysmal atrial tachycardia to normal sinus rhythm?

A. Adenosine

B. Atropine

C. Digoxin

D. Lidocaine

[2] Which of the following best describes a pharmacologic property of amiodarone?

A. a-Adrenergic agonist

B. P-Adrenergic agonist

C. Activation of Ca2+ channels

D. Inhibition of K+ channels

[3] A 45-year-old man is noted to have dilated cardiomyopathy with atrial fibrillation and a rapid ventricular rate. An agent is used to control the ventricular rate, but the cardiac contractility is also affected, placing him in pulmonary edema. Which of the following agents was most likely used?

A. Amiodarone

B. Digoxin

C. Nifedipine

D. Verapamil

Answers

[1] A. Adenosine is nearly 100 percent effective in converting PAT. Digoxin could be used but is less effective.

[2] D. Amiodarone blocks both Na+ and K+ channels and has α- and β-adrenoreceptor antagonist activities. The latter would indirectly decrease Ca2+-channel activity.

[3] D. Verapamil is a calcium-channel-blocking agent that slows conduction in the AV node, but it also has a negative inotropic effect on the heart.

Pharmacology pearls

Amiodarone is typically the first choice in acute ventricular arrhythmias.

Adenosine is the best choice to convert PAT to sinus rhythm.

Long-term benefit of using class I antiarrhythmics is uncertain, but mortality is not decreased.

Beta blockers have been shown to reduce mortality and second cardiovascular events by 25-40% in patients post-MI.

Acute Mountain Sickness

| Filed under Drug Therapy

Rapid ascension and exposure to altitudes greater than 8,000 feet without appropriate acclimatization is an environmental malady risked by many outdoors enthusiasts. Initiating within 1 to 2 days, this spectrum of symptoms has collectively been termed Altitude Sickness (AS) or Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS). As elevation increases, the partial pressure of oxygen decreases, causing climbers to experience hypoxemia. At 11,500 feet, the oxygen in the air is about 65% of the amount available at sea level, which forces the body to struggle to maintain normal levels of oxygenation. Ventilation may decrease further as one sleeps, potentiating the hypoxemia (Table 1).

Table 1: Acclimatization to High Altitude
Response Mechanism Time
Ventilation Stimulation by hypoxia Immediate and ongoing
Gas exchange in the lung Better matching of ventilation and perfusion to optimize O2 transport from the air to the blood Immediate
Blood Increase in RBCs to increase oxygen-carrying capacity
Shift of the O2-Hgb dissociation curve
Days to weeks
Tissues Increase in capillary density
Increase in mitochondrial density
Probably weeks

The compensatory respiratory response to hypoxemia involves an increase in minute ventilation, which may lead to respiratory alkalosis. The hypoxic condition can increase capillary permeability and leakage of fluid into the surrounding interstitium, leading to the more severe disorders of high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). These conditions are more serious, require emergency medical attention, and are beyond the scope of this review.

Pathophysiology

Acute mountain sickness is the most common of the high altitude pathologies. It manifests as influenza-like symptoms, including headache, malaise, and anorexia. It usually becomes clinically apparent 6 to 48 hours after rapid ascent to high altitudes (>8,000 feet). This syndrome occurs in about 25% of people at 8,000 feet but increases in incidence as the elevation increases. The most effective prevention is slow ascent or a 2- to 4-day acclimatization at intermediate altitudes (6,000 to 8,000 feet) followed by gradual ascent. Worsening of symptoms warrants descent to at least 1,650 feet lower than the altitude at which symptoms began. It should be noted that despite the importance of keeping physically fit, training (at lower levels) will not facilitate the adaptive process, nor will it minimize one’s chances of getting AMS.

Pharmacologic Approaches

It is important for pharmacists to be able to counsel and educate prospective recreationists regarding drugs that should be avoided or ones that may precipitate AMS. These include CNS depressants and drugs that may decrease ventilation and worsen hypoxia (e.g., ethanol, benzodiazepines).

Acetazolamide (Diamox and others) can be used in the treatment or prevention of acute mountain sickness. A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, acetazolamide decreases both the incidence and the severity of AMS by causing a sodium and bicarbonate diuresis, preventing fluid retention, decreasing alkalosis, and causing a metabolic acidosis. The acidosis stimulates ventilation, decreasing hypoxemia during sleep. The effective treatment dose is 125 to 250 mg every 12 hours beginning within 24 hours of symptom onset and continuing with descent. Total doses up to 1.5 grams have been used. The drug can cause transient myopia and tingling of the fingers, toes, and lips, but it is generally well tolerated. Because of the diuretic effect and the problem associated with dehydration mentioned above, it is imperative that an acute awareness of fluid intake and balance be maintained. Acetazolamide also belongs to the sulfonamide drug class; thus, skin eruptions and photosensitivity should be a component of the counseling. An allergy to sulfa precludes its use.

Some medical wilderness experts also advocate dexamethasone (4 to 8 mg loading dose, followed by 4 mg every six hours orally or intramuscularly) by itself or in addition to acetazolamide. Treatment trials with dexamethasone have demonstrated marked improvement within 12 hours. Descent is usually required if dexamethasone is used. Discontinuation of the drug without descent usually leads to recurrence of symptoms.

Furosemide has been shown to be useful in the treatment of HAPE, but extensive evaluations in treating acute mountain sickness are lacking. If peripheral edema is prominent, diuretics (e.g., furosemide, thiazides) can be successfully used, as well as nonpharmacological treatment (i.e., salt restriction). Spontaneous diuresis usually occurs after descent to lower altitudes. The use of diuretics warrants that attention be paid to hydration status.

Adjunctive agents include analgesics such as ibuprofen, which was shown to be superior to placebo in reducing high altitude headache severity and speed of relief in one randomized controlled crossover trial of military personnel. Researchers theorized that a prostaglandin-induced increase in cerebral microvascular permeability may be a component of the pathology of AMS; thus, prostaglandin inhibitors may be of benefit. Acetaminophen is also recommended by some experts for mild headaches; however, the 5HT1D agonist sumatriptan was shown to be inferior to ibuprofen in a controlled trial and is not recommended at this point. Phenothiazines such as prochlorperazine (5 to 10 mg IM or orally) or promethazine (50 mg orally or rectally) may be beneficial for nausea and vomiting.

The prevention of acute mountain sickness should include a graded ascent that pivots around avoiding rapid ascent to sleeping altitudes above 8,000 feet and spending 2 to 3 days at 8,000 to 9,000 feet before going higher. Several agents have been studied to prevent AMS. Acetazolamide, 125 mg to 250 mg orally twice daily, starting 24 hours prior to ascent, has been shown to be effective in preventing acute mountain sickness. One study demonstrated that 500 mg of acetazolamide in sustained-release formulation taken once daily was as effective as 250 mg of immediate-release acetazolamide taken twice daily, but had fewer side effects. It is recommended that acetazolamide be continued for 2 to 5 days at high altitude while one acclimates. Taken prophylactically, acetazolamide has been shown to decrease the frequency of AMS by about 30% to 50%.

Dexamethasone has been evaluated in varied randomized trials and has demonstrated similar efficacy to acetazolamide in reducing the incidence of acute mountain sickness. Zell, et al. studied the combination of dexamethasone acetate (4 mg orally four times daily) and acetazolamide (250 mg twice daily), finding the combination to be significantly superior to either agent alone. Rock, et al. found that dexamethasone in a dosage as low as 4 mg every 12 hours was effective in reducing AMS symptoms. Johnson and Rock also suggest a preventative dose of dexamethasone 2 to 4 mg orally every 6 hours starting the day of ascent and continuing for 3 days at the higher altitude, then tapering the regimen off over 5 days. Some experts recommend reserving dexamethasone only for treatment of acute mountain sickness or for prophylaxis in people who are intolerant or allergic to acetazolamide.

The literature reveals few data in regard to spironolactone (25 mg four times daily) use in AMS, suggesting it may have efficacy comparable to acetazolamide in preventing the symptoms of acute mountain sickness. This has not been confirmed with large randomized trials; thus, no recommendations can be forwarded.

Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, has also been studied, albeit less frequently. In the only randomized trial for prophylaxis of AMS, nifedipine was effective in reducing pulmonary arterial pressures, but not in oxygen exchange or the manifestations of acute mountain sickness. Most experts suggest it may be of use in HAPE (high altitude pulmonary edema), but do not recommend it for prevention of AMS.

Table 2: Drug Therapy for Acute Mountain Sickness
Drug Dose Mechanism of Action Adverse Effects Comments
Acetazolamide

(Diamox)

Prevention:
125-250 mg PO BID 24 hr before ascent and first 2 days at high altitude

Treatment:
125-250 mg PO BID until symptoms resolve

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor; causes HCO3diuresis and respiratory stimulation; increases PaO2; promotes ion transport across blood brain barrier Paresthesias; diuresis; potential dehydration; alters taste of carbonated beverages Sulfa reactions possible; no rebound effect; can be taken episodically; pregnancy category C
Dexamethasone

(Decadron )

Prevention:
2-4 mg PO Q6H or 4 mg PO Q12H

Treatment: 4 mg Q6H, PO, IM

Unknown; may reduce brain blood volume; may reduce capillary leak; may block lipid peroxidation Hyperglycemia; mood changes; dyspepsia rebound effect on withdrawal Can be lifesaving; effects evident in 2-8 hr; no effect on acclimatization; pregnant women should not take if possible
Furosemide

(Lasix )

80 mg PO Q12H for a total of 2 doses* Loop diuretic; decreases ECV; decreases pulmonary congestion Hypovolemia; hypotension; hypokalemia; hypomagnesemia Not recommended for prevention; evidence is scant
Aspirin 325 mg PO Q4H x 3 doses Prostaglandin inhibition Dyspepsia; GI bleeding For HA prevention; no clinical trials
Ibuprofen

(Advil, Motrin, Nuprin)

400-600 mg PO x 1, MR Prostaglandin inhibition Dyspepsia; GI bleeding For HA prevention; no clinical trials
Prochlorperazine

(Compazine)

10 mg PO or IM

Q6-8H PRN

CTZ inhibitor EPS; sedation Preg cat C; use diphenhydramine IM for EPS; for nausea/vomit
Promethazine

(Phenergan)

25-50 mg PO, IM, PR

Q6H PRN

CTZ inhibitor EPS; sedation Preg cat C; use diphenhydramine IM for EPS; for nausea/vomit
Zolpidem

(Ambien )

10 mg PO HS PRN Non–BZP modulator of gamma-aminobutyric acid receptors Rare For insomnia; does not depress ventilation at high altitude; preg cat B
ECV = extracellular volume; GI = gastrointestinal; HA = headache; CTZ = chemoreceptor trigger zone;
BZP = benzodiazepine; EPS = extrapyramidal symptoms; IM = Intramuscular;
* Only dose studied in clinical trials; many favor using lower doses to minimize adverse effects